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Feb 4, 2010 at 17:17 answer added Felipe Voloch timeline score: 2
Feb 4, 2010 at 16:33 comment added t3suji @David Speyer: yes, that's what I meant --- that if intersection is a finite discrete set, counting points at infinity of projective plane makes it infinite... See also the answer of Steven Gubkin.
Feb 4, 2010 at 16:28 comment added David E Speyer @t3suji Is your point that sometimes the intersection is actually a finite discrete set, as in (y+x e^x, x+y+xe^x)? That's certainly true. I guess we need the OP to confirm whether we were supposed to focus on discreteness or infinitude.
Feb 4, 2010 at 15:59 comment added t3suji @David Speyer: Well, if that was the intended meaning, it does not have much to do with Bezout's theorem --- it is a claim about structure of analytic sets (which probably follows from Weierstrass Preparation Lemma). Can the OP confirm that this is the question? Because as I read it, 'infinite discrete set' means just that: a discrete set that fails to be finite.
Feb 4, 2010 at 15:46 comment added David E Speyer Everyone seems to be misreading the question. We aren't asking that the intersection set be finite, let alone that we can give a formula for its size. We just want to know that it is discrete.
Feb 4, 2010 at 15:45 answer added David E Speyer timeline score: 5
Feb 4, 2010 at 14:02 answer added Steven Gubkin timeline score: 2
Feb 4, 2010 at 14:01 comment added t3suji It seems the question is how to count `intersection at infinity' (which you have to do in the Bezout Theorem), otherwise it is easy to give counterexamples...
Feb 4, 2010 at 13:43 history asked Mark B Villarino CC BY-SA 2.5