Timeline for Do partitions of unity exist if we impose additional conditions on the derivatives?
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
8 events
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Sep 6, 2013 at 13:43 | comment | added | fedja | @Ritwik Glad to hear it :-). The moral is: ask exactly what you need and let other people generalize or consider partial cases. Unless you can solve the problem yourself, you never know what the first step or the first reduction should be. | |
Sep 6, 2013 at 13:14 | vote | accept | Ritwik | ||
Sep 6, 2013 at 13:14 | comment | added | Ritwik | In any case, this is a great answer. This is exactly what I was after. | |
Sep 6, 2013 at 13:13 | comment | added | Ritwik | I am sorry, you were absolutely right; there is no mistake in what you said. I was making a simple error. | |
Sep 6, 2013 at 12:30 | comment | added | fedja | @Ritwik Let's see: $\varphi_0^2+\varphi_1^2=\psi^2$, $(\varphi_0')^2+(\varphi_1'^2)=\psi'^2+\psi^2(\theta')^2$, so, yes, $\psi_j^2$ should be there (unless the condition is that the pure sum of squared derivatives with coefficients $n_j^2$ is prescribed instead, in which case it shouldn't). | |
Sep 6, 2013 at 12:20 | comment | added | Ritwik | When you are defining $\theta^{\prime}$, did you intend to put the $\psi_j^2$ on the rhs? If the $\psi_j^2$ is not there, then every thing works out as you have said, unless I am making some calculation mistake. | |
Sep 6, 2013 at 1:55 | history | edited | fedja | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
added 8 characters in body
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Sep 6, 2013 at 1:46 | history | answered | fedja | CC BY-SA 3.0 |