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Sep 6, 2013 at 13:43 comment added fedja @Ritwik Glad to hear it :-). The moral is: ask exactly what you need and let other people generalize or consider partial cases. Unless you can solve the problem yourself, you never know what the first step or the first reduction should be.
Sep 6, 2013 at 13:14 vote accept Ritwik
Sep 6, 2013 at 13:14 comment added Ritwik In any case, this is a great answer. This is exactly what I was after.
Sep 6, 2013 at 13:13 comment added Ritwik I am sorry, you were absolutely right; there is no mistake in what you said. I was making a simple error.
Sep 6, 2013 at 12:30 comment added fedja @Ritwik Let's see: $\varphi_0^2+\varphi_1^2=\psi^2$, $(\varphi_0')^2+(\varphi_1'^2)=\psi'^2+\psi^2(\theta')^2$, so, yes, $\psi_j^2$ should be there (unless the condition is that the pure sum of squared derivatives with coefficients $n_j^2$ is prescribed instead, in which case it shouldn't).
Sep 6, 2013 at 12:20 comment added Ritwik When you are defining $\theta^{\prime}$, did you intend to put the $\psi_j^2$ on the rhs? If the $\psi_j^2$ is not there, then every thing works out as you have said, unless I am making some calculation mistake.
Sep 6, 2013 at 1:55 history edited fedja CC BY-SA 3.0
added 8 characters in body
Sep 6, 2013 at 1:46 history answered fedja CC BY-SA 3.0