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Aug 18, 2013 at 13:13 comment added Amin @Carnahan The latter assertion looks incorrect. Note that this forces $C_x (G)$ to be normal in $G$.
Aug 17, 2013 at 14:54 answer added Derek Holt timeline score: 9
Aug 17, 2013 at 13:40 history edited Ricardo Andrade CC BY-SA 3.0
added top level tag; minor correction of title (added "of")
Aug 17, 2013 at 13:06 history edited Nashenas CC BY-SA 3.0
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Aug 17, 2013 at 5:39 comment added S. Carnahan Basic observations: $C_G(x)/Z(G)$ is an elementary 2-group, and $C_G(x) \subset Z_2(G)$ (from the upper central series).
Aug 16, 2013 at 21:55 comment added Yemon Choi Yes, but what prompted you to check this in the first place? I assume this was not just a question that occurred to you out of the blue, so why not give us some more background?
Aug 16, 2013 at 21:41 review First posts
Aug 16, 2013 at 22:05
Aug 16, 2013 at 21:41 comment added Yemon Choi I can't speak for others, but personally I would like to know some of the motivation behind a question before spending time thinking about it
Aug 16, 2013 at 21:30 comment added Nashenas Do you have any counterexample?
Aug 16, 2013 at 21:27 comment added Yemon Choi Why do you think this should be true? Why do you want it to be true, i.e. where does this question originate?
Aug 16, 2013 at 21:25 history asked Nashenas CC BY-SA 3.0