Timeline for Are there infinitely many integer-valued polynomials dominated by $1.9^n$ on all of $\mathbb{N}$?
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
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Aug 12, 2013 at 18:35 | comment | added | Vesselin Dimitrov | (To correct my first comment above: I meant to say that for each $C > e$ there are uncountably many such mappings $f : \mathbb{N} \to \mathbb{Z}$ --- not for $C = e$.) | |
Aug 12, 2013 at 18:23 | comment | added | Vesselin Dimitrov | Thus, you have shown that for each $n_0 < \infty$, there are only finitely many $f \in \mathbb{Z}[x]$ with $|f(n)| < n!/2$ for all $n \geq n_0$. This is close to optimal upon considering $k!\binom{n}{k}$, although (especially in view of the proof) it could still be an interesting problem to see whether the coefficient $1/2$ of $n!$ is optimal, or if it could be improved to any constant smaller than $1$. | |
Aug 12, 2013 at 18:19 | comment | added | Vesselin Dimitrov | Very neat. I had failed to fully exploit the polynomial assumption. My argument for $C < e$ was otherwise similar; it amounted to noting that $f(k)-g(k)$ was divisible by the product of the primes less than $k$. The latter argument works for arbitrary mappings $f : \mathbb{N} \to \mathbb{Z}$ with the property $f(n+p) \equiv f(n) \mod{p}$ for all $n \in \mathbb{N}$ and all primes $p$: for $C < e$ there are only finitely many such mappings (conjectured to be polynomials anyway), while for $C = e$ there are uncountably many. | |
Aug 12, 2013 at 17:28 | history | answered | David E Speyer | CC BY-SA 3.0 |