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Aug 12, 2013 at 7:49 vote accept user68316
Aug 11, 2013 at 16:51 history edited user68316 CC BY-SA 3.0
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Aug 11, 2013 at 16:33 comment added YCor it's "iff $G$ is word-hyperbolic and its boundary $\partial G$ is homeomorphic to $S^1$" (the boundary doesn't make sense for an arbitrary group)
Aug 11, 2013 at 15:39 answer added Misha timeline score: 11
Aug 11, 2013 at 14:48 history asked user68316 CC BY-SA 3.0