Skip to main content
8 events
when toggle format what by license comment
Mar 20, 2022 at 20:22 answer added Jacob Maibach timeline score: 1
Aug 11, 2013 at 14:28 comment added Jason Rute @NoelVaillant, yes indeed. I always work with separable metric spaces, so I sometimes forget to mention that assumption. I added it.
Aug 11, 2013 at 14:26 history edited Jason Rute CC BY-SA 3.0
added 16 characters in body
Aug 11, 2013 at 5:59 comment added Noel Vaillant I was wondering: the random variable $(X,Y)$ is measurable with respect to the product of the Borel $\sigma$-algebras ${\cal B}(S)\otimes{\cal B}(S)$. The map $d:S\times S\to\mathtt{R}^{+}$ being continuous is measurable with respect to the Borel $\sigma$-algebra ${\cal B}(S\times S)$. Don't you need to assume something like $S$ is separable to ensure that ${\cal B}(S\times S)={\cal B}(S)\otimes{\cal B}(S)$ so that $d(X,Y)$ is a measurable map and your expectation is well-defined?
Aug 11, 2013 at 3:39 history edited Ricardo Andrade
removed deprecated tag 'analysis'; added top level tags
Aug 10, 2013 at 22:12 history edited Michael Greinecker
edited tags
Aug 10, 2013 at 22:12 history migrated from math.stackexchange.com (revisions)
Aug 4, 2013 at 23:40 history asked Jason Rute CC BY-SA 3.0