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Apr 13, 2017 at 12:58 history edited CommunityBot
replaced http://mathoverflow.net/ with https://mathoverflow.net/
Mar 5, 2010 at 11:58 answer added Charlie Frohman timeline score: 5
Feb 22, 2010 at 8:16 vote accept Daniel Moskovich
Feb 20, 2010 at 8:35 answer added Noah Snyder timeline score: 5
Feb 4, 2010 at 3:44 comment added Tom Leinster Yeah, 2's kinda OK, probably. At least, it's not socially controversial. Though if you really want to know whether two notions of 2-category are the same, you have to compare the 3-categories that they form --- and there your headache begins...
Feb 3, 2010 at 4:37 comment added Daniel Moskovich I think for weak 2-categories we are basically OK though, no? So this question, at least, should be relatively unambiguous (I hope!) although it might have multiple answers...
Feb 3, 2010 at 2:44 comment added Tom Leinster It's worth sounding a note of caution here. Whenever anyone says that any statement involving the term "n-category" has been "proved", there's a caveat: it's far from clear what exactly "n-category" should mean. Many definitions have been proposed (including the one that Lurie uses), but there are thoroughly nontrivial outstanding questions about the relationships between them. So when a statement is proved using one proposed definition, it doesn't instantly follow that the statement is true for any of the other proposed definitions.
Feb 3, 2010 at 1:11 history asked Daniel Moskovich CC BY-SA 2.5