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Jul 30, 2013 at 12:47 comment added Igor Rivin @JoelDavidHamkins yes, in the paper I cite they point this out (since zero-equivalence is undecidable, just as you say).
Jul 30, 2013 at 1:28 comment added Joel David Hamkins +1. But in this answer, one consider the problem with input having only polynomials with coefficients in $\mathbb{Q}$ (or relax to algebraic), but asking for injectivity/surjectivity of these polynomials over $\mathbb{R}$. If one wants to consider polynomials over $\mathbb{R}$, whose coefficients are given as oracles, then I believe it will be undecidable, because equality of reals given this way is undecidable, and one can reduce $a=b$ to the injectivity and/or surjectivity via the polynomial $p(x)=ax-bx$.
Jul 30, 2013 at 0:56 comment added Igor Rivin I believe this IS their argument...
Jul 30, 2013 at 0:54 comment added Benjamin Steinberg For algebraically closed and real closed fields doesn't this follow from decidability of the first order theory?
Jul 29, 2013 at 23:38 history answered Igor Rivin CC BY-SA 3.0