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Jul 29, 2013 at 4:04 comment added Will Sawin Yes. I think $a=v$, $b= 2^{(v!)_2 -1}$, $c=2^{(v!)_2}$ gives the best possible $2$-adic solutions to $a+b-n=v$ for any $v$, which your formula is the best closed-form approximation to. It's not clear how much more one can gain from including the other primes.
Jul 29, 2013 at 3:58 comment added S. Carnahan I think the $p$-valuation of $x$ consecutive integers is at least $\lfloor \frac{x}{p-1} \rfloor - \lfloor \log_p(x+1) \rfloor$, so $a+b-n$ is at most $(p-1)\lfloor \log_p(n) \rfloor + (p-1) \lfloor \log_p \log_p(n) \rfloor +2p-2$. You can use $n=2^k$, $a = k+ \lceil \log_2(k) \rceil$, $b = 2^k-1$ to get close to a 2-adic solution, when $k+\lceil \log_2(k) \rceil$ has the form $2^m-1$.
Jul 28, 2013 at 19:32 history answered Will Sawin CC BY-SA 3.0