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Jul 28, 2013 at 17:58 vote accept Sebastien Palcoux
Jul 28, 2013 at 17:20 comment added Jesse Peterson @SébastienPalcoux: This is because if $u \in L(\mathbb F_\infty) \subset M * L(\mathbb F_\infty)$ is a unitary with trace $0$ then $M$ is in free position from $u M u^*$, hence $M * M \cong W^*( M, u M u^* ) \subset M * L(\mathbb F_\infty) \cong M$.
Jul 28, 2013 at 8:42 comment added Sebastien Palcoux Thank you very much @JessePeterson ! I learn a lot by reading your answer. The only point I don't understand is : why $M \simeq M \star L(\mathbb{F}_{\infty}) \Rightarrow M \star M \hookrightarrow M$ ?
Jul 27, 2013 at 22:14 history answered Jesse Peterson CC BY-SA 3.0