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Sep 2, 2013 at 19:02 vote accept CommunityBot
Aug 12, 2013 at 7:07 comment added GH from MO @Jash: On the one hand, the exponent of 2 in the prime factorization of $\frac{b!}{(n-a)!}$ is at least $\frac{b-(n-a)-1}{2}$, because there are at least that many even numbers in the sequence $n-a+1,\dots,b$. On the other hand, the exponent of 2 in the prime factorization of $\binom{n}{a}$ is at most $\log_2(n)$ by Kummer's theorem (see the link in my original post). These two facts imply the inequality you ask about.
Aug 12, 2013 at 6:58 comment added user38122 Would you explain more on how did you drive $\frac{b-(n-a)-1}{2} \leq \log_2(n)$ ?
Jul 27, 2013 at 16:34 history answered GH from MO CC BY-SA 3.0