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Jul 26, 2013 at 6:21 vote accept Mircea
Jul 26, 2013 at 5:29 comment added Jack Huizenga Because $I$ is a quotient of $E_1$ of smaller rank and $E_1$ is stable. (Using an exact sequence $0\to K \to E_1 \to I\to 0$, we have $\mu(I) > \mu(E_1)$ iff $\mu(K) < \mu(E_1)$.)
Jul 26, 2013 at 5:21 comment added Mircea Could you please explain to a newbie like me why $\mu(I)>\mu(E_1)$?
Jul 26, 2013 at 5:14 history edited Jack Huizenga CC BY-SA 3.0
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Jul 26, 2013 at 1:54 history answered Jack Huizenga CC BY-SA 3.0