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Jul 24, 2013 at 1:07 comment added Dylan Wilson @MikeShulman I sent you an email with a write up. If it's up to par, I'll post it as an answer here (if I can figure out how to make the diagrams...)
Jul 23, 2013 at 19:45 comment added Dylan Wilson Writing up lots and lots of details, will post a little later today.
Jul 23, 2013 at 17:20 comment added Mike Shulman Can you explain how your "construction" gives a map $\mathrm{Fun}(\mathrm{Fork},\mathcal{C}) \to \mathrm{Fun}(\Delta^1\vee\Delta^1,\mathcal{C})$ and not just an operation on objects? And what exactly is this "inverse functor"? Finally, yes, I would very much appreciate anything to make this more rigorous.
Jul 23, 2013 at 17:13 comment added Mike Shulman For me, in the ordinary case, identifying the coequalizer with that pushout "by checking universal properties" would go like "the pushout represents pairs $h,k:Y\to Z$ such that $h(g,1) = k(f,1)$, i.e. $h g = k f$ and $h = k$, hence just a single map $h:Y\to Z$ such that $h g = h f$." I very much appreciate your word "reckless" for calling any $(\infty,1)$-categorical proof "the same" as this. (-:
Jul 22, 2013 at 23:01 comment added Dylan Wilson Hi five! I can delete mine if you like, I'm only keeping it up for now cuz it has references- but if Mike doesn't need them I'll get rid of it.
Jul 22, 2013 at 22:57 comment added Omar Antolín-Camarena Looks like we wrote pretty much the same answer, too.
Jul 22, 2013 at 18:44 comment added Dylan Wilson Whoops, didn't notice someone had already answered.
Jul 22, 2013 at 18:43 history answered Dylan Wilson CC BY-SA 3.0