Timeline for Analytic uniformization
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
8 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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| Aug 28, 2013 at 2:21 | history | edited | Ricardo Andrade |
added more generic (quasi-top level) tag
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| Aug 27, 2013 at 15:02 | vote | accept | jonathanverner | ||
| Aug 7, 2013 at 11:06 | answer | added | 喻 良 | timeline score: 4 | |
| Jul 19, 2013 at 7:46 | comment | added | Michael Greinecker | A function with analytic graph is actually a Borel function. To see this, note that $f^{-1}(B)=\pi\big((X\times B)\cap\textrm{Graph} f\big)$, is analytic when $B$ is Borel. But for the same reason, $f^{-1}(B^C)$ is analytic. Since $f^{-1}(B)^C=f^{-1}(B^C)$, this shows that the preimage of a Borel set is both analytic and coanalytic, hence Borel. | |
| Jul 19, 2013 at 6:39 | comment | added | jonathanverner | I think it means that the graph is an analytical set. | |
| Jul 18, 2013 at 20:04 | comment | added | SBF | Does analytic uniformization means that graph is an analytical set, or that the map is analytically measurable? | |
| Jul 18, 2013 at 11:48 | review | First posts | |||
| Jul 18, 2013 at 11:57 | |||||
| Jul 18, 2013 at 11:32 | history | asked | jonathanverner | CC BY-SA 3.0 |