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Jun 14, 2017 at 7:23 comment added Sam Nead For a tight discussion of disambiguation (by David Eppstein, of course!), see here: mathoverflow.net/a/45163/1650 . For a discussion of why a regular language has a rational generating function, see Stanley's discussion of the "transfer-matrix method''; you can find it as Theorem 4.7.2 of EC Vol I [page 242].
Nov 5, 2009 at 8:53 comment added Yoo As to intuition for regular languages (and hence also for sofic shifts), suppose a very long word is displayed on a screen one letter at a time (let's say you can press a button to see the next letter, but no buttons for going back), if you can decide if the word is in L with a bounded amount of memory (either your memory or jotting things down and erasing on physical papers), then the language L is regular. And if you write your decision algorithm in an automata, you will only need a finite number of states because your algorithm requires a bounded amount of memory.
Oct 22, 2009 at 16:38 comment added Tom Church Diego de Estrada says "a regular language [is always unambiguous], because there exists a DFA that accepts it" on this page: mathoverflow.net/questions/563/…
Oct 21, 2009 at 8:13 comment added Tom Church No: applying Myhill-Nerode, note that x^k and x^j can be distinguished by w^k. Thus this language is not regular. (I had misunderstood your question; I don't know if there is any regular language that is inherently ambiguous.)
Oct 20, 2009 at 22:09 comment added Qiaochu Yuan Yes, but is it regular? I don't have much intuition for these things.
Oct 20, 2009 at 21:57 comment added Tom Church According to Wikipedia, the language { x^ay^bz^cw^d | (a=d and b=c) or (a=b and b=c) } is inherently ambiguous.
Oct 20, 2009 at 5:09 comment added Reid Barton Oh, it shouldn't be an issue because we can apply your second argument to a DFA which recognizes the language.
Oct 20, 2009 at 5:05 history edited Qiaochu Yuan CC BY-SA 2.5
Fixed claim.
Oct 20, 2009 at 5:04 comment added Qiaochu Yuan Hmm. According to Google there is a notion of "inherently ambiguous" language, which is a language with the property that every grammar describing it is ambiguous. But the search results I'm getting don't agree on whether there exist inherently ambiguous regular languages.
Oct 20, 2009 at 4:53 comment added Reid Barton I'm curious about the "language is unambiguous" part. I would have thought that unambiguous-ness was a property of a grammar, not a language. What does "unambiguous" mean, and how do you prove it for the language of Dyck words?
Oct 20, 2009 at 4:51 comment added Andrew Critch Simply awesome. Thanks for making me aware of this.
Oct 20, 2009 at 4:47 comment added Qiaochu Yuan Flajolet and Sedgewick's text "Analytic Combinatorics" is available online here: algo.inria.fr/flajolet/Publications/books.html The proof can be done using both definitions of a regular language: if you define a regular language in terms of a regular grammar, this is equivalent to specifying the above generating function using sums, products, and the "Kleene star" 1/(1-x). If you define a regular language in terms of recognizability by a state machine G, then you can extract the generating function by considering 1/(I-At) where A is the adjacency matrix.
Oct 20, 2009 at 4:29 comment added Andrew Critch THAT. IS. AWESOME. Where can I read more about this?
Oct 20, 2009 at 4:26 history answered Qiaochu Yuan CC BY-SA 2.5