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Jan 5, 2016 at 3:06 comment added LSpice A family of special cases, including the ones of interest to you, of an earlier, more general question was addressed by @WilberdvanderKallen.
Jul 13, 2013 at 20:10 review First posts
Jul 13, 2013 at 20:20
Jul 12, 2013 at 20:42 review Close votes
Jul 14, 2013 at 0:34
Jul 12, 2013 at 20:32 history edited david CC BY-SA 3.0
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Jul 12, 2013 at 20:32 comment added david @KevinVentullo: Oops, sorry. I was being stupid. But the above result is still true in that case. I edited my question. Thanks anyway!
Jul 12, 2013 at 20:04 comment added Kevin Ventullo It is not true in general that when $k$ is finite you will always have $k\subset k_1$ or $k_1\subset k$.
Jul 12, 2013 at 19:33 history asked david CC BY-SA 3.0