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Jul 9, 2013 at 9:13 answer added nsrt timeline score: 12
Jul 9, 2013 at 7:43 comment added Neil Strickland @PedroPerez Will's argument says that if $f$ is a self-map such that neither $f$ nor $f^2$ has a fixed point, then $f$ must act with determinant one on $H^2(X)\simeq\mathbb{Z}^2$. In particular, $f$ must be a homotopy equivalence. I don't think that Will is making any claim about whether such a map $f$ exists.
Jul 9, 2013 at 7:12 comment added Pedro Perez @Will I do not know what are you saying, yes or no?
Jul 9, 2013 at 6:45 comment added Will Sawin By the Lefschetz trace formula, if $M$ is the $2 \times 2$ matrix that gives the action of $f$ on $H^2$, then $tr(M)=-1$ and $tr(M^2)=-1$, so $tr(M)^2-2 det (M) = -1$, so $det(M)=1$.
Jul 9, 2013 at 6:37 comment added Will Sawin @Noam: Yes. On one sphere, send each point to its antipode. Send everything else to the antipode of the base point.
Jul 9, 2013 at 6:33 comment added Noam D. Elkies Is there an example where $f$ has no fixed point?
Jul 9, 2013 at 6:28 review First posts
Jul 9, 2013 at 6:29
Jul 9, 2013 at 6:10 history asked Pedro Perez CC BY-SA 3.0