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Jul 8, 2013 at 14:06 vote accept mkemeny
Jul 7, 2013 at 14:46 comment added mkemeny @PhilipEngel: My exact sequence should be in the correct order. $T_p$ is a subsheaf of $\Omega_p$, generated by the torsion form $tds$. See the discussion in the comments below.
Jul 7, 2013 at 14:24 comment added Philip Engel I think everything is explained by the fact that your exact sequence is backwards. There is an exact sequence $0\rightarrow I_p\rightarrow \mathcal{O}\rightarrow T\rightarrow 0$ which when you tensor with $\Omega_C$ gives the result.
Jul 7, 2013 at 9:10 answer added user36560 timeline score: 2
Jul 6, 2013 at 17:43 comment added Alexander Chervov You are right that Kaehler differential sheaf has torsion. I also do not understand their formula. What is ideal sheaf here?
Jul 6, 2013 at 17:11 history edited mkemeny CC BY-SA 3.0
changed title to better reflect the question
Jul 6, 2013 at 17:10 comment added mkemeny Admittedly the title is unfortunately the same. But as far as I can tell the question is completely different! I want to know if the sheaf of Kaehler differentials is torsion free for an integral curve, and if the formula $\Omega_C \simeq \omega_c \otimes I_p$ is really true. The related question was about how to define the line bundle $\omega_C$. My question is perhaps more about the Kaehler differentials than the dualizing sheaf (and I have now changed the title!).
Jul 6, 2013 at 12:22 comment added IMeasy hey you should check the related questions! look at this: mathoverflow.net/questions/58559/…
Jul 6, 2013 at 11:01 review First posts
Jul 6, 2013 at 11:02
Jul 6, 2013 at 10:44 history asked mkemeny CC BY-SA 3.0