Skip to main content

Timeline for Measure induced by function

Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0

10 events
when toggle format what by license comment
Jun 30, 2013 at 20:21 comment added randomsample the function $-xy-yz-xz$ was just one example. I was only wondering if one can say in general that the 2-marginals are negative if $f$ has the properties above. Maybe $f(x,y,z) = -\frac{1}{xyz}$ on $[1,\infty)^3$ is a better example.
Jun 30, 2013 at 19:56 comment added randomsample The 2-dimensional marginal of the 3-dimensional Lebesgue measure is a 2-dimensional Lebesgue measure. So I do not see why the 2-dimensional marginals of $\mu$ should be 0?
Jun 30, 2013 at 19:27 comment added Gerald Edgar The example cited, $f(x,y,z) = -xy-yz-xz$, assigns measure zero to all $3$-rectangles.
Jun 30, 2013 at 15:28 comment added Asaf The 2-dimensional sections you've mentioned are of 0 Lebesgue measure (hence of $0$ $f$ measure, becuase it is ac measure wrt to Lebesgue), so they will be "ignored" by the Hahn decomposition of the $f$ measure, which will be essentially $P=[0,\infty)^{3}$. I think this is not a research-level question, as stated currently.
Jun 30, 2013 at 15:22 history edited Dan Piponi CC BY-SA 3.0
edited title
Jun 30, 2013 at 12:11 comment added randomsample if the function $f$ is differentiable that is equivalent to $\frac{\partial f}{\partial x_i x_j x_m} \geq 0$
Jun 30, 2013 at 12:10 comment added randomsample en.wikipedia.org/wiki/N-increasing
Jun 30, 2013 at 12:03 comment added Michael Greinecker What does "3-increasing" mean?
Jun 30, 2013 at 11:34 review First posts
Jun 30, 2013 at 11:35
Jun 30, 2013 at 11:18 history asked randomsample CC BY-SA 3.0