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Jul 1, 2013 at 14:22 vote accept Ritwik
Jun 30, 2013 at 18:50 comment added Neil Strickland I have heard that one can deduce this kind of thing from the results in Section 4.3.20 of "Geometric measure theory" by Federer. However, I have never tried to work out the details myself.
Jun 30, 2013 at 11:48 comment added Ritwik My reason is the following fact: Let $V \rightarrow M$ be a rank $k+1$ vector bundle over $M$ and $X$ a smooth submanifold of $M$ of dimension $k$. Then the zero set of a generic smooth section $s: M \rightarrow V$ does not intersect $X$. Would such a statement be true if $X$ was a space with hausdorf dimension $k$?
Jun 30, 2013 at 11:38 answer added Anton Petrunin timeline score: 3
Jun 30, 2013 at 10:42 comment added Neil Strickland Is there some reason why you want to use this particular definition of dimension? If you use Hausdorff dimension instead, for example, then there is a well-developed theory for this sort of thing.
Jun 30, 2013 at 9:27 answer added Peter Michor timeline score: 1
Jun 30, 2013 at 9:23 history asked Ritwik CC BY-SA 3.0