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Apr 13, 2017 at 12:57 history edited CommunityBot
replaced http://mathoverflow.net/ with https://mathoverflow.net/
Jun 30, 2013 at 3:50 comment added The Masked Avenger Yes, but if the first 2 don't work for x and the last 2 don't work for y, then 3 is not big enough.
Jun 30, 2013 at 2:59 comment added Maaz-ul-Haq If $ry$ increases by $3(y/z)\ge 3$ wouldn't that imply an increment in $rx$ by $3(x/y)\ge 3$ as well?
Jun 30, 2013 at 2:51 comment added The Masked Avenger I'm not convinced. For the values allowed for r, less than half might work for x, and a separate less than half might work for y. You need to argue in the main case that that does not happen (there is at least one r that works for both x and y), and I do not see that argument yet.
Jun 30, 2013 at 2:30 history asked Maaz-ul-Haq CC BY-SA 3.0