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Dec 15, 2019 at 21:36 comment added dezdichado I suppose there is no hope of any simplification when $X,Y$ are neither independent, not identically distributed?
Jul 29, 2013 at 17:50 comment added Davide Giraudo @Did I made the correction you suggested. Thank you.
Jul 29, 2013 at 17:50 history edited Davide Giraudo CC BY-SA 3.0
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Jul 29, 2013 at 17:12 comment added Did The last $\mathrm d\mu$ should be $\mathrm d\mu_X$. And if $F$ is defined by $F(x)=P(X\leqslant x)$ (the càdlàg choice, if you wish), then the $+$ sign before this integral should be a $-$ sign.
Jun 29, 2013 at 15:39 history edited Davide Giraudo CC BY-SA 3.0
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Jun 24, 2013 at 20:29 history edited Davide Giraudo CC BY-SA 3.0
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Jun 24, 2013 at 19:22 history answered Davide Giraudo CC BY-SA 3.0