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This is a crosspost from math.SEmath.SE. Suppose $G$ and $H$ are discrete groups. Is it always the case that any finite dimensional complex representation of $G\times H$ is of the form $$ \bigoplus_i V_i \otimes W_i, $$ where $V_i, W_i$ are reps of $G$ and $H$, respectively?

I know this is true when $G$ and $H$ are finite and when the representation of $G\times H$ is completely reducible, but is there a simple counterexample to the general case?

I'm also curious if it is ``usually true," in some sense, that any rep of $G\times H$ has the above form.

This is a crosspost from math.SE. Suppose $G$ and $H$ are discrete groups. Is it always the case that any finite dimensional complex representation of $G\times H$ is of the form $$ \bigoplus_i V_i \otimes W_i, $$ where $V_i, W_i$ are reps of $G$ and $H$, respectively?

I know this is true when $G$ and $H$ are finite and when the representation of $G\times H$ is completely reducible, but is there a simple counterexample to the general case?

I'm also curious if it is ``usually true," in some sense, that any rep of $G\times H$ has the above form.

This is a crosspost from math.SE. Suppose $G$ and $H$ are discrete groups. Is it always the case that any finite dimensional complex representation of $G\times H$ is of the form $$ \bigoplus_i V_i \otimes W_i, $$ where $V_i, W_i$ are reps of $G$ and $H$, respectively?

I know this is true when $G$ and $H$ are finite and when the representation of $G\times H$ is completely reducible, but is there a simple counterexample to the general case?

I'm also curious if it is ``usually true," in some sense, that any rep of $G\times H$ has the above form.

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Eric O. Korman
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Are all representations of $G\times H$ induced from representations of $G$ and $H$?

This is a crosspost from math.SE. Suppose $G$ and $H$ are discrete groups. Is it always the case that any finite dimensional complex representation of $G\times H$ is of the form $$ \bigoplus_i V_i \otimes W_i, $$ where $V_i, W_i$ are reps of $G$ and $H$, respectively?

I know this is true when $G$ and $H$ are finite and when the representation of $G\times H$ is completely reducible, but is there a simple counterexample to the general case?

I'm also curious if it is ``usually true," in some sense, that any rep of $G\times H$ has the above form.