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Jun 7, 2013 at 3:15 vote accept Allen
Jun 7, 2013 at 3:14 comment added Allen Thanks Will. As we know, $w_{1}(L)$ goes to the first Chern class of the complexfication of $L$ under the above Bockstein homomorphism. My original motivation is when $c_{1}(L_{\mathbb{C}})=0$ implies $w_{1}(L)=0$.
Jun 7, 2013 at 3:00 history answered Will Sawin CC BY-SA 3.0