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when toggle format what by license comment
Jun 5, 2013 at 8:26 answer added HJRW timeline score: 1
Jun 5, 2013 at 4:55 comment added Misha Yes, assuming that your manifolds are Riemannian and $\pi$ is an isometric covering map; you do not even need "measurable" assumption, it is just a set-theoretic statement.
Jun 4, 2013 at 18:38 history edited Ricardo Andrade CC BY-SA 3.0
fixed typography by adding spaces
Jun 4, 2013 at 14:40 history asked jiangsaiyin CC BY-SA 3.0