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May 31, 2013 at 14:25 comment added user33625 What about when $\kappa\rightarrow(\alpha)^r_2$ for all $\alpha<\kappa$ and $r<\omega$? I guess it won't make $\kappa \rightarrow (\alpha)^{<\omega}_2$. Though by your answer such a $\kappa$ would be strongly inaccessible since it'd be larger than $\exp_\omega(|\alpha|)$ for every $\alpha<\kappa$. Would $\kappa\rightarrow(\alpha)^2_2$ for all $\alpha<\kappa$ imply $\kappa\rightarrow(\alpha)^r_2$ for all $\alpha<\kappa$ and $r<\omega$?
May 31, 2013 at 13:11 vote accept user33625
May 31, 2013 at 13:11
May 31, 2013 at 12:58 history answered Péter Komjáth CC BY-SA 3.0