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Apr 6, 2023 at 10:46 comment added The Amplitwist Reposting the link mentioned in the previous comment so that it appears in the "Linked" questions list: Objects which can't be defined without making choices but which end up independent of the choice
Jun 25, 2013 at 3:02 review First posts
Jun 25, 2013 at 7:27
May 30, 2013 at 21:44 answer added Noah Schweber timeline score: 1
May 29, 2013 at 9:28 answer added Jason Rute timeline score: 1
May 28, 2013 at 17:19 answer added Timothy Chow timeline score: 4
May 28, 2013 at 17:12 comment added Timothy Chow Somewhat related MO question: mathoverflow.net/questions/131255/…
May 28, 2013 at 15:24 answer added Boris Novikov timeline score: 0
May 28, 2013 at 12:44 comment added user34458 Yes, this is of course the background of this question. As you surely now, there are rather "artificial" constructions (which embed graphs into more complicated structures in such a way that it becomes possible to simulate monadic second-order logic on the graph) which show that first-order logic with an arbitrary linear order is more expressive than first-order logic without the order. As the example above shows, for first-order logic with modulo counting, there is a very "natural" property, which can be found in nearly every basic book on algebra, which proves the analogous statement.
May 28, 2013 at 11:45 comment added Emil Jeřábek The question is quite interesting for logics between first and second order. In particular, inflationary fixed-point logic characterizes classes of structures recognizable in deterministic polynomial time in the presence of a linear order, but it is strictly weaker in general, and it is an open problem whether there exist a logic characterizing polynomial time on unordered structures at all.
May 28, 2013 at 10:19 comment added user34458 While my phrasing of the question above was intentionally imprecise/non technical, I had something rather concrete on my mind. I am mostly interested in the case where some property which otherwise could not be stated in first-order logic becomes first-order definable (potentially with some generalized quantifiers as in the example above) in the presence of a linear order. For, say, second-order logic, the question becomes rather uninteresting, as you can always say "there exists some linear order such that ...".
May 28, 2013 at 9:52 comment added Ryan Budney Your question generalizes quite naturally: throughout all mathematics, there tends to be pleasant formulations of theory whenever you have some kind of monoidal or group-like structure around.
May 28, 2013 at 9:20 history asked user34458 CC BY-SA 3.0