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Jan 30, 2014 at 2:36 comment added user36116 Paul, are you claiming that $ \beta_{A}: {K_{0}}(A) \to {K_{1}}(S(A)) $’s being an isomorphism is an immediate abstract-nonsense consequence of the fact that both $ \beta_{\mathbb{C}}: {K_{0}}(\mathbb{C}) \to {K_{1}}(S(\mathbb{C})) $ and $ \delta_{\mathbb{C}}: {K_{1}}(S(\mathbb{C})) \to {K_{0}}(\mathbb{C}) $ are isomorphisms? I have an open question that is related to what you are saying here.
May 24, 2013 at 23:46 history answered Paul Siegel CC BY-SA 3.0