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May 24, 2013 at 14:28 comment added Chuck Hague That makes sense, although it's not clear to me why the multiplication map $ R_1(\mathcal L)^{\otimes m} \to R_m(\mathcal L)$ should be surjective (but I might be missing something easy here).
May 24, 2013 at 3:40 comment added Allen Knutson I think all that's happening here is that you're filtering your $R$ by powers of an ideal $I$. No? In which case $R$ is Noetherian so $gr_I\ R$ is too.
May 23, 2013 at 20:21 history edited Chuck Hague CC BY-SA 3.0
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May 23, 2013 at 19:42 history asked Chuck Hague CC BY-SA 3.0