Timeline for In what rigorous sense are Sperner's Lemma and the Brouwer Fixed Point Theorem equivalent?

13 events

when toggle format	what		by	license	comment
Apr 13, 2017 at 12:58	history	edited	CommunityBot		replaced http://mathoverflow.net/ with https://mathoverflow.net/
Sep 29, 2013 at 3:39	answer	added	Gil Kalai		timeline score: 7
Sep 29, 2013 at 2:00	answer	added	Włodzimierz Holsztyński		timeline score: 2
Sep 28, 2013 at 14:07	history	edited	Ricardo Andrade	CC BY-SA 3.0	replaced deprecated tag 'topology'
Jun 7, 2013 at 0:55	answer	added	usul		timeline score: 12
May 30, 2013 at 13:06	vote	accept	James Propp
May 30, 2013 at 13:06	vote	accept	James Propp
May 30, 2013 at 13:06
May 24, 2013 at 14:13	history	edited	James Propp	CC BY-SA 3.0	added link to online version of article
May 22, 2013 at 17:40	history	edited	James Propp	CC BY-SA 3.0	added 106 characters in body
May 22, 2013 at 6:49	comment	added	Andrej Bauer		In this particular case a general topos would work to show that they are not equivalent. But in general, when discussing equivalence of statements $A$ and $B$, we have to do it in a context where not both of them are provable (or refutable), lest they are "lost in the background theory". The idea is to a fragment of mathematics that is just strong enough to express the statements. See François's answer, where he identifies the relevant weak logical setting for Spenne'r Lemma and Brouwer's fixed point theorem.
May 22, 2013 at 5:40	history	edited	François G. Dorais		edited tags
May 22, 2013 at 5:37	answer	added	François G. Dorais		timeline score: 49
May 22, 2013 at 5:08	history	asked	James Propp	CC BY-SA 3.0