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Apr 13, 2017 at 12:57 history edited CommunityBot
replaced http://mathoverflow.net/ with https://mathoverflow.net/
Apr 4, 2014 at 1:57 answer added jdc timeline score: 0
Jul 7, 2013 at 2:50 vote accept jdc
Jul 5, 2013 at 19:04 answer added Tom Baird timeline score: 5
May 22, 2013 at 11:48 comment added Allen Knutson No, I think it's the same -- in both cases the only interesting map is a certain $G/T$-bundle. I like your description a lot more, though!
May 21, 2013 at 19:02 comment added Dave Anderson @jdc, as you saw, $G$ is equivariantly formal for the adjoint action, so $H_G^*(G) \to H^*(G)$ is surjective. But this factors through the pullback $H_G^*(G) \to H_T^*(G)$, so the map $H_T^*(G) \to H^*(G)$ is surjective, as well. (@Allen, is the map you describe different from this change-of-groups homomorphism?)
May 21, 2013 at 1:51 comment added Allen Knutson Let's see, $H^*_{T_{Ad}}(G) = H^*_{T_{Ad}\times G}(G\times G) = H^*_{G_{Ad}}(G\times^T G) \from H^*_{G_{Ad}}(G)$ where the last is pullback along the multiplication map $G\times^T G \to G$. So I suspect you could use the representative from that last cohomology group.
May 21, 2013 at 0:23 history edited jdc CC BY-SA 3.0
Added "?" in title
May 20, 2013 at 20:31 history asked jdc CC BY-SA 3.0