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May 17, 2013 at 7:57 comment added Ralph Yes: Let $H$ resp. $K$ be any finite group those integral cohomology has a non-zero class x resp. y of degree 2. Then $xy\in H^4(H\times K;\mathbb{Z})=H^3(H\times K;\mathbb{C}^\times)$ is non-zero and restricts to zero on $H$ and $K$. If you take $H=K=\mathbb{Z}/p\oplus \mathbb{Z}/p$ then you get an example with $H^2(H;\mathbb{C}^\times)\neq 0$.
May 17, 2013 at 2:34 vote accept Kim Morrison
May 17, 2013 at 2:34 comment added Kim Morrison Ah. Do you know an example with $\mathbb k = \mathbb C$?
May 16, 2013 at 22:06 comment added Ralph No, I'm afraid, but it doesn't: For $\mathbb{k}=\mathbb{C}$ the question is equivalent to finding $\omega \in H^4(G;\mathbb{Z})\cong H^3(G;\mathbb{C}^\times)$ that restricts to zero. Since the cohomology of $Q_8$ is 4-periodic, $H^4(Q_8;\mathbb{Z})$ is generated by a cohomology class z (of order 8) that restricts non-zero on both, H and K.
May 16, 2013 at 15:57 comment added Kim Morrison Thanks Ralph, that's perfect. The same groups also work for $\mathbb k = \mathbb C$, right?
May 16, 2013 at 10:15 history answered Ralph CC BY-SA 3.0