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Sep 29, 2013 at 10:25 history edited Nikita Kalinin CC BY-SA 3.0
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May 14, 2013 at 16:52 history edited Nikita Kalinin CC BY-SA 3.0
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May 14, 2013 at 16:20 history edited Nikita Kalinin CC BY-SA 3.0
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May 14, 2013 at 15:10 answer added Nikita Kalinin timeline score: 1
May 14, 2013 at 12:24 comment added alvarezpaiva @Misha: Actually, I think you may be right and that the trick is to use the Loewner-John ellipsoid (ellipse in this case), but one needs to use the sharp bound for quotient between the area of the ellipse and the area of the body (instead of using John's theorem).
May 14, 2013 at 9:17 answer added Dietrich Burde timeline score: 3
May 13, 2013 at 22:54 comment added Misha Yes, the Jones ellipse method gives $diam^2 \le \frac{8}{\pi} Area \approx 2.5 Area$ which is a bit worse than $diam^2 \le \frac{4}{\sqrt{3}} Area \approx 2.3 Area$.
May 13, 2013 at 21:02 comment added Cristos A. Ruiz I guess $F$ must have positive area. This is trivialy false if $F$ is a line segment.
May 13, 2013 at 20:31 history edited Nikita Kalinin
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May 13, 2013 at 20:15 comment added alvarezpaiva @Misha: this will give a similar bound, but I don't think it will be sharp. Behrend's bound is sharp with equality if and only if $F$ is a triangle. But of course one should check ...
May 13, 2013 at 19:52 comment added Misha Did you try to take the largest-area (Jones-Loewner) ellipsoid E in F and then apply affine transformation which sends E to the unit circle?
May 13, 2013 at 19:24 comment added alvarezpaiva Funny, I'm also looking at this reference and I can't even find the statement of this result. It is supposed to be in pages 745 and 746.
May 13, 2013 at 18:02 history asked Nikita Kalinin CC BY-SA 3.0