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May 10, 2013 at 23:15 comment added Emerton Dear Joel, I hadn't seen this before, but I wouldn't be surprised if it was hidden somewhere in EGA. (I'm not as familiar with the contents of EGA as I should be.) Best wishes, Matt
May 10, 2013 at 14:59 history edited user9072
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May 10, 2013 at 13:47 vote accept Joël
May 10, 2013 at 13:36 comment added Joël Thank you Matt. I saw your proof on math.stackexchange, and it is nice and simple: I feel bad to have missed it. Just out of curiosity: is this result somewhere to be found in the literature? I had looked for it in Hartshorne (and I think it is not there) and in EGA (but then it should be there somewhere, and I must have missed it)...
May 10, 2013 at 5:03 answer added Sausage Roll timeline score: 4
May 10, 2013 at 4:45 comment added Emerton Dear Joel, If $f$ is not separated, then I think the answer is no; e.g. if we take the affine line with the doubled origin, then there is a natural morphism from this to the affine line (identifying the two origins) which is locally finite and q.c., but not finite (since not affine, indeed not separated). If $f$ is separated, then the answer is yes, see this answer: math.stackexchange.com/a/387260/221 Best wishes, Matt
May 10, 2013 at 2:47 history edited Joël CC BY-SA 3.0
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May 10, 2013 at 2:33 history asked Joël CC BY-SA 3.0