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Nov 13, 2015 at 18:30 comment added Fan Zheng as well as in theory, which I of course believe. To put it more concretely, you need to compute at least $10^{17}$ digits of $\pi$ in order to tell if that number is an integer, and the best approximation of $\pi$ that I'm aware of gives $10^{12}$ digits. There's still someway to go.
Nov 13, 2015 at 18:04 comment added Fan Zheng @VladimirReshetnikov OK, after putting it in wolframalpha, I realized like LTS above that it is much larger than I had thought... so your scenario may well be true, at least in practice.
Nov 13, 2015 at 17:02 comment added Vladimir Reshetnikov @FanZheng It's still possible that none of the programs terminates, because of incompleteness (there are true statements without proofs).
Nov 13, 2015 at 15:33 comment added Fan Zheng @VladimirReshetnikov In that case you can run two programs in parallel: one obtaining higher and higher precision of the said number, and the other enumerate all valid proofs and see if one is a proof that the said number is an integer. I bet the first program terminate first.
Jan 31, 2015 at 21:07 comment added Daniel McLaury $\pi^{\pi^{\pi^{\pi}}}$ has over a hundred quadrillion digits. It would take more than two exabytes of storage just to write down the integer part of that number.
Apr 21, 2014 at 20:49 comment added user85798 @VladimirReshetnikov Oh, if it actually is an integer then of course this wouldn't work. I'm assuming it's not an integer. (I see no reason why we would get x.00000000000...)
Apr 21, 2014 at 20:11 comment added Vladimir Reshetnikov @Oliver Even if we had such a computer, and got a result like 435643…85685.00000000000…, how do we know if it is the exact integer, or we just need higher precision to discover non-zero fractional part?
Apr 21, 2014 at 19:45 comment added user85798 ok, pi^pi^pi^pi is a hell of a lot bigger than I thought it was. Should still work though if you have a good computer and enough time.
Apr 21, 2014 at 19:14 comment added user85798 @VladimirReshetnikov Then we would fail, and be unable to bound it between two consecutive integers. But that (probably) won't happen.. just get a computer to find a good enough upper and lower bound, which would count as a proof.
Apr 21, 2014 at 18:09 comment added Vladimir Reshetnikov @Oliver But what if it is actually an integer?
Apr 21, 2014 at 14:36 comment added user85798 Surely it can be proven that pi^pi^pi^pi is not an integer? Just bound it between two consecutive integers... It would be inelegant as factorial but it would work ?
May 4, 2013 at 14:53 vote accept Vladimir Reshetnikov
May 3, 2013 at 22:02 comment added Oksana Gimmel It is mentioned on the Russian Wikipedia page Open mathematical problems. A very similar question was discussed at math.stackexchange.com/questions/13050/eee79-and-ultrafinitism
May 3, 2013 at 21:42 comment added Peter LeFanu Lumsdaine @Oksana Gimmel: very interesting! Can you suggest any references for reading on that last bit? (It’s rather difficult to search about!)
May 3, 2013 at 20:54 comment added Stefan Kohl You raise a nice question! (Though of course an answer 'yes' would be a lot nicer than 'no'!)
May 3, 2013 at 19:58 history answered Oksana Gimmel CC BY-SA 3.0