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Jan 25, 2010 at 14:41 comment added Zev Chonoles Ah, right - I meant Lebesgue measure in my answer, but got mixed up. Clarifying which measure you mean is a good idea, as it will help avoid confusions such as mine :)
Jan 25, 2010 at 14:31 comment added François G. Dorais Subsets of null sets are always Lebesgue measurable, but not necessarily Borel measurable. Perhaps you should clarify what you mean by "measurable" in your answer.
Jan 25, 2010 at 14:31 comment added Haim Perhaps I'm missing something here, but isn't the Lebesgue measure complete? i.e. for every measurable set A with m(A)=0, each subset of A is Lebesgue-measurable with measure zero.
Jan 25, 2010 at 14:26 history answered Zev Chonoles CC BY-SA 2.5