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Apr 13, 2017 at 12:58 history edited CommunityBot
replaced http://mathoverflow.net/ with https://mathoverflow.net/
May 9, 2013 at 1:07 vote accept user16557
May 4, 2013 at 20:33 comment added Brian Rushton Does this mean the Oiled-Macaroni constant is a renormalized feta function? Mmm... Greek food...
May 4, 2013 at 20:04 history edited Douglas Zare CC BY-SA 3.0
corrected statement about periods
May 4, 2013 at 19:47 comment added Douglas Zare @quid I was using the wrong definition of period, not trying to claim something new.
May 4, 2013 at 18:52 comment added user9072 You claim e known to be a period; AFAIK, but I might be wrong, this is neither known (nor much conjectured). Could you please provide a reference for this claim. Thanks in advance.
May 3, 2013 at 5:25 comment added Nilotpal Kanti Sinha "There are a lot more connections known between π and e and other numbers than between γ and other numbers." This may not entirely true. The numbers $e^{\gamma}$ pops up every now and then in the theory of primes. For example Merten's Theorems, Cramer-Granville's conjecture etc to name a few. But I do agree that the connection between $\gamma$ and other numbers that has nothing to do with primes directly or indirectly is far less common.
May 2, 2013 at 22:32 comment added KConrad For a general number field $K$, Ihara introduced in 2006 an Euler-Kronecker constant $\gamma_K$, which is best defined from the Laurent expansion at $s=1$ not of $\zeta_K(s)$, but rather of $\zeta_K'(s)/\zeta_K(s)$: $\zeta_K'(s)/\zeta_K(s) = -1/(s-1) + \gamma_K + O(s-1)$. In terms of the Laurent expansion $\zeta_K(s) = R/(s-1) + c + O(s-1)$, we have $\gamma_K = c/R$. For $K = {\mathbf Q}$, $R = 1$ and therefore $c = \gamma_{\mathbf Q}$. But for general $K$ the number $R$ is not 1 and the constant term of $\zeta_K(s)$ at $s = 1$ is the "wrong" object of interest.
May 2, 2013 at 13:46 comment added Noam D. Elkies Note, though, that the fact that $\gamma$ is not known to be a "period" does not exclude an irrationality proof from some other direction; the irrationality of numbers such as $\log_2 3$ is even easier to prove than the irrationality of $\pi$, and $\log_2(3)$ is not expected to be a period (though it's the ratio of the periods $\log 3$ and $\log 2$).
May 2, 2013 at 3:15 history answered Douglas Zare CC BY-SA 3.0