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Jul 22, 2011 at 8:56 vote accept Hanno
Jan 25, 2010 at 22:37 comment added Hanno Ahh, I finally got it :) ... the maps $\Omega^{-1}{\mathbb Z}\otimes_{\mathbb Z}\Omega^{-1}a\cong{\mathbb Z}\otimes_{\mathbb Z}\Omega^{-2}a\cong\Omega^{-2}a$ and $\Omega^{-1}{\mathbb Z}\otimes_{\mathbb Z}\Omega^{-1}a\cong\Omega^{-1}(\Omega^{-1}{\mathbb Z}\otimes_{\mathbb Z} a)\to\Omega^{-1}({\mathbb Z}\otimes_{\mathbb Z}\Omega^{-1}a)\cong\Omega^{-2}a$ agree only up to sign (and this is also what Mariano requires axiomatically in his paper). Now everything's clear! Thanks alot, Greg, for your help and your patience!
Jan 25, 2010 at 21:07 history edited Greg Stevenson CC BY-SA 2.5
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Jan 25, 2010 at 11:18 history answered Greg Stevenson CC BY-SA 2.5