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Jan 25, 2010 at 6:24 comment added Jonas Meyer Yeah, having glanced at the paper, it appears that what they actually prove is explicitly in the plane, but apparently they were more concerned with the result for general nonzero complex Hilbert spaces. However, as François G. Dorais's comment shows, this is overkill for this particular question.
Jan 25, 2010 at 3:58 comment added Joel David Hamkins Let's see....{0} is also a Hilbert space, so....
Jan 25, 2010 at 0:20 history answered j.c. CC BY-SA 2.5