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Apr 26, 2013 at 12:22 vote accept Josh
Apr 25, 2013 at 16:07 vote accept Josh
Apr 25, 2013 at 16:10
Apr 25, 2013 at 14:00 answer added ioannis.parissis timeline score: 1
Apr 25, 2013 at 12:39 history edited Josh CC BY-SA 3.0
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Apr 25, 2013 at 10:59 comment added Josh I have not tried any example. I do not like to try for counterexamples. But if you have a counterexample you can answer, instead of commenting :-)
Apr 25, 2013 at 10:49 comment added Josh That's why I wrote "I'm interested in the case $p \neq 2$". I expect something different when $p \neq 2$ (when computing the Euler-Lagrange equations), but still I have some motivation to believe that the result is still true for $p \neq 2$.
Apr 25, 2013 at 6:37 comment added Daniel Spector Try taking the derivative of $f(c):=\int_\Omega |u-c|^p\;d\mu$, and then think about justifying it later (dominated convergence, etc). Then you can see why $c$ should be the average of $u$ when $p=2$, and what you might expect otherwise.
Apr 25, 2013 at 0:12 comment added Anthony Quas Have you tried any examples?
Apr 24, 2013 at 23:40 history asked Josh CC BY-SA 3.0