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Dec 31, 2014 at 13:00 history closed Ricardo Andrade
Stefan Kohl
Lucia
Yemon Choi
Chris Godsil
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Dec 30, 2014 at 23:23 review Close votes
Dec 31, 2014 at 13:00
Oct 17, 2013 at 16:54 answer added Henrique de Oliveira timeline score: 3
Apr 23, 2013 at 18:37 comment added Steven Landsburg PS --- and of course your example goes away if you assume free disposal (so that the value of A is always greater than or equal to the value of $\{A,B\}$).
Apr 23, 2013 at 16:09 comment added Steven Landsburg Efficiency means that there is no unexploited opportunity to make everyone better off via some combination of reallocation and side payments. Giving both goods to bidder 3 is inefficient because it misses the opportunity to transfer good A to bidder 1, transfer good B to bidder 2, and have each of bidders 1 and 2 make a $2.75 side payment to bidder 3. That said, this question is clearly off topic here.
Apr 23, 2013 at 15:32 history asked user32387 CC BY-SA 3.0