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Apr 24, 2013 at 12:58 vote accept Jesko Hüttenhain
Apr 23, 2013 at 15:41 comment added Laurent Moret-Bailly With the notation in the definition of $\overline{\mu}$, assume $P$ is a singular point. Then in general there is an $f\in\mathcal{O}_{X,P}$ such that $\mu_f(I)=1$, but none such that $\overline{\mu}_f(I)=1$.
Apr 23, 2013 at 5:31 answer added Youngsu timeline score: 5
Apr 23, 2013 at 3:31 answer added Filippo Alberto Edoardo timeline score: 2
Apr 22, 2013 at 21:07 answer added Will Sawin timeline score: 3
Apr 22, 2013 at 20:45 comment added Jesko Hüttenhain Yea, that was exactly my suspicion. I would like to know how (or rather when) it misbehaves, though - most of the time I am dealing with very forgiving kinds of schemes anyway.
Apr 22, 2013 at 19:54 comment added Qiaochu Yuan My guess is that $\mu_f$ misbehaves, but I don't know enough to say how it misbehaves.
Apr 22, 2013 at 19:52 history asked Jesko Hüttenhain CC BY-SA 3.0