Timeline for Why do mathematicians prefer one definition over the other when they both define the same concept?
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
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| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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| Sep 27, 2021 at 23:37 | history | edited | LSpice | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
| -> \mid while it's on the front page
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| Sep 27, 2021 at 8:34 | history | edited | coudy | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
typo
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| Sep 26, 2021 at 19:42 | comment | added | Mike Shulman | FWIW, this explanation does also apply to equivalence relations. Starting from the standard definition, one can (1) remove reflexivity to obtain the notion of "partial equivalence relation", (2) remove symmetry to obtain the notion of preorder, or (3) remove transitivity to obtain a notion of undirected simple graph. These generalizations are not as clear with Hilbert's definition. | |
| Apr 19, 2013 at 6:50 | vote | accept | Amir Asghari | ||
| Apr 19, 2013 at 0:37 | history | answered | user9072 | CC BY-SA 3.0 |