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Jul 19, 2022 at 7:55 history edited Martin Sleziak CC BY-SA 4.0
http -> https (the question was bumped anyway)
Apr 13, 2017 at 12:58 history edited CommunityBot
replaced http://mathoverflow.net/ with https://mathoverflow.net/
Apr 13, 2017 at 12:19 history edited CommunityBot
replaced http://math.stackexchange.com/ with https://math.stackexchange.com/
Jan 10, 2015 at 11:47 history edited Fernando CC BY-SA 3.0
deleted 56 characters in body
Apr 17, 2013 at 15:25 comment added Fernando Sorry, I meant: "to complete the proof, you need an example of a quotient map $q: \mathbb{I}\to Y $ such that $q\times Z:\mathbb{I}\times Z\to Y\times Z $ is not a quotient map"
Apr 17, 2013 at 15:00 comment added Fernando ok! If he was asking about the particular case in which $\mathbb{I} $ is a closed interval, you may put $A=\mathbb{I}$ in the "proof" above. But, now, to complete the proof, you need an example of a quotient map $q:\mathbb{I}\to X$ such that $q:\mathbb{I}\times Z\to Y\times Z $ is not a quotient map.
Apr 17, 2013 at 14:22 history edited Fernando CC BY-SA 3.0
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Apr 17, 2013 at 14:16 history edited Fernando CC BY-SA 3.0
deleted 4 characters in body
Apr 17, 2013 at 14:10 comment added johndoe shouldn't A be the interval I in order to prove the inexistence of such a topology?
Apr 17, 2013 at 14:09 history edited Fernando CC BY-SA 3.0
edited body; deleted 1 characters in body
Apr 17, 2013 at 14:02 history undeleted Fernando
Apr 17, 2013 at 14:01 history edited Fernando CC BY-SA 3.0
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Apr 17, 2013 at 13:28 history deleted Fernando
Apr 17, 2013 at 13:25 history answered Fernando CC BY-SA 3.0