Timeline for Giving $\mathit{Top}(X,Y)$ an appropriate topology
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
14 events
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Jul 19, 2022 at 7:55 | history | edited | Martin Sleziak | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
http -> https (the question was bumped anyway)
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Apr 13, 2017 at 12:58 | history | edited | CommunityBot |
replaced http://mathoverflow.net/ with https://mathoverflow.net/
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Apr 13, 2017 at 12:19 | history | edited | CommunityBot |
replaced http://math.stackexchange.com/ with https://math.stackexchange.com/
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Jan 10, 2015 at 11:47 | history | edited | Fernando | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
deleted 56 characters in body
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Apr 17, 2013 at 15:25 | comment | added | Fernando | Sorry, I meant: "to complete the proof, you need an example of a quotient map $q: \mathbb{I}\to Y $ such that $q\times Z:\mathbb{I}\times Z\to Y\times Z $ is not a quotient map" | |
Apr 17, 2013 at 15:00 | comment | added | Fernando | ok! If he was asking about the particular case in which $\mathbb{I} $ is a closed interval, you may put $A=\mathbb{I}$ in the "proof" above. But, now, to complete the proof, you need an example of a quotient map $q:\mathbb{I}\to X$ such that $q:\mathbb{I}\times Z\to Y\times Z $ is not a quotient map. | |
Apr 17, 2013 at 14:22 | history | edited | Fernando | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
added 26 characters in body
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Apr 17, 2013 at 14:16 | history | edited | Fernando | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
deleted 4 characters in body
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Apr 17, 2013 at 14:10 | comment | added | johndoe | shouldn't A be the interval I in order to prove the inexistence of such a topology? | |
Apr 17, 2013 at 14:09 | history | edited | Fernando | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
edited body; deleted 1 characters in body
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Apr 17, 2013 at 14:02 | history | undeleted | Fernando | ||
Apr 17, 2013 at 14:01 | history | edited | Fernando | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
added 906 characters in body
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Apr 17, 2013 at 13:28 | history | deleted | Fernando | ||
Apr 17, 2013 at 13:25 | history | answered | Fernando | CC BY-SA 3.0 |