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Apr 19, 2013 at 3:35 history closed Benoît Kloeckner
Andreas Blass
Bill Johnson
Pietro Majer
Felipe Voloch
off topic
Apr 18, 2013 at 13:48 answer added Andrew timeline score: 4
Apr 18, 2013 at 10:41 history edited Twi CC BY-SA 3.0
I add a stronger assumptions.
Apr 17, 2013 at 18:07 comment added Twi Let's make it a little bit more difficult. Suppose, in addition, $\alpha_{n}(x)$ is a POLYNOMIAL in $x$.
Apr 17, 2013 at 18:05 comment added Twi Very nice example, thx!
Apr 17, 2013 at 11:51 comment added Andrew No. Consider series $\sum_{n=0}^\infty n!e^{-n^2x^2}t^n$.
Apr 17, 2013 at 11:51 comment added Ben Barber As you suspect, there are easy counterexamples. Take any $\alpha_n$ with $\alpha_n(0) = n!$ and $\alpha_n(x) = 0$ for $|x| \geq 1/n$. Then for non-zero $x$ the series is a polynomial, and $\sum_{n=1}^\infty n!t^n$ diverges except at 0.
Apr 17, 2013 at 11:22 history asked Twi CC BY-SA 3.0