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Jan 23, 2010 at 22:17 comment added Pete L. Clark @Anweshi: no, it doesn't. The favorable property which is missing here is geometric integrality. That's why Kevin said "as I write": probably the questioner wants to include this hypothesis. But Kevin's EDIT is the best answer I've seen yet.
Jan 23, 2010 at 22:12 comment added Kevin Buzzard Anweshi: all I was doing was using the definition given by the OP.
Jan 23, 2010 at 22:10 history edited Kevin Buzzard CC BY-SA 2.5
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Jan 23, 2010 at 22:06 comment added Anweshi Does a "good" definition of variety over a field allow a finite field extension to be a variety?
Jan 23, 2010 at 22:02 history answered Kevin Buzzard CC BY-SA 2.5