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Jan 23, 2010 at 23:07 comment added Anweshi @Pete. It is easy to see that the two are indeed the same. Sorry for the stupid question and thanks for clarifying.
Jan 23, 2010 at 22:51 comment added Pete L. Clark @Anweshi: $k[x^2,x^3]$ is the first thing you say it is, and it is isomorphic to the second thing you say it is. Hence the convention.
Jan 23, 2010 at 22:48 comment added Anweshi So $k[x^2, x^3]$ is not the sub-$k$-algebra of $k[x]$ generated by $x^2$ and $x^3$, it is rather $k[x,y]/(x^2 - y^3)$. Why is such a convention used? I do not understand.
Jan 23, 2010 at 22:04 comment added Kevin Buzzard Anweshi: he didn't mean that, he meant x^2=y^2 and x^3=y^3 implies x=y.
Jan 23, 2010 at 21:38 comment added Pete L. Clark But in this case, isn't the fiber over the singular point non-reduced?
Jan 23, 2010 at 21:24 comment added Anweshi Pedantic interruption: zero and one have the same cube and square.
Jan 23, 2010 at 21:15 history answered Ben Webster CC BY-SA 2.5