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Apr 18, 2013 at 21:24 vote accept Ollie
Apr 18, 2013 at 21:24 answer added Ollie timeline score: 2
Apr 18, 2013 at 7:20 answer added Makoto Yamashita timeline score: 6
Apr 16, 2013 at 18:52 comment added Alain Valette I think that the $C(X,U(n))$'s can be distinguished by observing that the minimal degree of a unitary irreducible representation of $C(X,U(n))$, not of degree 1, must be $n$.
Apr 16, 2013 at 18:39 comment added Ollie You're right - I was thinking too algebraically and had completely missed that! Thanks
Apr 16, 2013 at 18:28 history edited Ollie CC BY-SA 3.0
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Apr 16, 2013 at 18:24 comment added Will Sawin Per Qiaochu's comment, aren't these obviously homomotopic to $U(n)$?
Apr 16, 2013 at 18:15 comment added Ollie Yes, it denotes the unitary group, I've changed it now.
Apr 16, 2013 at 18:10 history edited Ollie CC BY-SA 3.0
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Apr 16, 2013 at 17:53 comment added Todd Trimble Is $\mathcal{U}(n)$ supposed to be the unitary group? (If so, I thought just plain $U(n)$ was much more standard notation.)
Apr 16, 2013 at 17:45 comment added Qiaochu Yuan I would guess that it's easier to prove that they aren't homotopy-equivalent.
Apr 16, 2013 at 16:37 history asked Ollie CC BY-SA 3.0