(I would like Edited to ask this as a comment but alas I lackmore accurately address the required 50 rep to comment on other people's posts.OPs (restated) concerns:
Could you clarifyIt appears that one cannot hope for a few things in your question? In particular I'm wondering how you're defining $f$ if $F$ isn't $L^1$; do you mean to take some sort of limitgeneral result for $f(x) = \lim_{R \to \infty} \int_{-R}^R F(y)^{ixy}dy$$L^p$, analytic (assuming $F$ is at least $L^1_{\text{loc}}$even entire) or are you assuming $F$ is a tempered distribution and you're defining $f$ to be the distributional Fourier transform of $F$if $p \geq 2$. Consider, for example $$ f = \sum_{n = 1}^\infty n^n \chi_{[n, n + e^{-n^2}]}. $$ (which agrees withBy mollifying the given formula when $F$ iscutoffs one could also take $L^1$)? In particular$f \in C^\infty$, is your question (equivalent tobut let me not worry about that for now.) the following: if I We have a tempered distribution $$ ||f||_{L^p}^p = \sum_{n = 1}^\infty n^{pn}e^{-n^2} < \infty $$ for all $F$ and its distributional Fourier transform$1 \leq p < \infty$ $f$ is a function, must this function be of polynomial growth? (In which case the Fourier transform is irrelevant.) If this is not your question, could you indicate what assumptions you're putting on the function/objectbut $F$?
edited to add the following considerations:$f \notin L^\infty$).
if you only assume that $F \in \mathcal{S}^\prime$ orFor $F \in L^1_{\text{loc}}$$\xi \in \mathbb{C}$, and you define $$ F(\xi) = \int_{\mathbb{R}}f(y)e^{-i\xi y}dy. $$ From the definition of $f$ by either, one immediately sees this is well-defined (ithe integral is absolutely convergent) taking a limit as $R \to \infty$ in, and the limits ofusual differentiation under the integral, or sign (ii) by the distributional Fourier transformagain, thenreadily justified from the explicit form of $f$ may be a function which) shows that $F$ is continuous almost everywhere but not of polynomial growthan entire function. For example By the Hausdorff-Young inequality, take $F$ to be the inverse$F \in L^p(\mathbb{R})$ for all $2 \leq p \leq \infty$, though we can also say with certitude that $F \notin L^1(\mathbb{R})$, since its Fourier transform of an $L^2$ function $f$ which is very 'spiky', e.g.not $f = \sum_{n = 1}^\infty n^n \chi_{[n, n + n^{-3n}]}$$L^\infty$. Note By Carleson's theorem, $||f||_{L^2}^2 = \sum_1^\infty n^{-n} < \infty$$f(x) = \lim_{R \to \infty} \int_{-R}^R F(y)e^{ixy}dy$ for $x$-a.e., and by constructionof course $f$ is not of polynomial growth, though it is continuous almost everywhere. Clearly we recover $f$ by method (ii), and since $F\chi_{[-n,n]} \to F$ in $L^2$ as $n \to \infty$, we also recover $f$ both by method (i) (and moreover the limit as $R \to \infty$ of the integral exists almost everywhere by Carleson's theorem).