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Apr 12, 2013 at 20:43 comment added user26107 $\forall \epsilon > 0$, $\exists \delta > 0$, $\forall x \in (x_0-\delta, x_0+\delta)$: $\phi(x) \in (\phi(x_0)-\epsilon, \phi(x_0)+\epsilon)$. So $\psi(y) \in (\phi(x_0)-\epsilon, \phi(x_0)+\epsilon)$ too, therefore $\psi(y) \to \phi(x_0)$. The same is true for all other points.
Apr 12, 2013 at 19:27 history edited user22980 CC BY-SA 3.0
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Apr 12, 2013 at 19:25 comment added user22980 You are right, the counter-example is not valid. So maybe there is no need of further assumption?
Apr 12, 2013 at 19:18 comment added qianzhang At the beginning you assumed that $\phi$ is continuous everywhere, but in your example $\phi$ is discontinuous at $0$, why?
Apr 12, 2013 at 19:12 history asked user22980 CC BY-SA 3.0